If a woman works with Allah's permission, for whom is the result of her work?
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The questioner : The questioner says: If a woman works with Allah's permission, for whom is the result of her work?
The Shaykh : The issue differs. If the contract is established between the husband and wife, and the wife works and earns from it, and the contract did not stipulate that the money belongs to the husband, or that it is divided equally between them, or otherwise, then this money remains hers. The opposite is the exact opposite. What happens today is that a man marries a woman who is, for example, a teacher and has a salary, and then a dispute arises between them over who this salary belongs to. We say that as long as the husband was satisfied with the reality of this woman before he contracted marriage with her, he has no right to share in her earnings or her provision. However, we observe completely that her work takes from her husband's time, his rest, and her service to him in his home and to his children. So he may give her the choice between continuing in her work and him being a partner in some of her money, or that she stay in her home and leave her work. And I think there is no disagreement among scholars that if the husband orders his wife to do something that does not contradict the Shari'ah, it is obligatory for the woman to obey him, especially if, due to her preoccupation with her work, she is negligent in managing the affairs of her home and serving her husband. This is what appears to me as the answer to this question.
The Shaykh : The issue differs. If the contract is established between the husband and wife, and the wife works and earns from it, and the contract did not stipulate that the money belongs to the husband, or that it is divided equally between them, or otherwise, then this money remains hers. The opposite is the exact opposite. What happens today is that a man marries a woman who is, for example, a teacher and has a salary, and then a dispute arises between them over who this salary belongs to. We say that as long as the husband was satisfied with the reality of this woman before he contracted marriage with her, he has no right to share in her earnings or her provision. However, we observe completely that her work takes from her husband's time, his rest, and her service to him in his home and to his children. So he may give her the choice between continuing in her work and him being a partner in some of her money, or that she stay in her home and leave her work. And I think there is no disagreement among scholars that if the husband orders his wife to do something that does not contradict the Shari'ah, it is obligatory for the woman to obey him, especially if, due to her preoccupation with her work, she is negligent in managing the affairs of her home and serving her husband. This is what appears to me as the answer to this question.
Source
www.al-albany.com
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