Commentary on the poet's statement: Since the one with absolute merit possesses from the virtues what is above the one with restricted merit in excellence, if we suppose one has attained a type that the best of people has not attained

The Shaykh : He says:
"Since the one with absolute merit possesses from the virtues what is above the one with restricted merit in excellence" This is the reasoning for his statement: "How much more so is the preponderance
"Since the one with absolute merit"
Meaning: Because the one with absolute merit possesses from the virtues what is above the one with restricted merit in excellence, is this correct or not? For example, this one has a hundred virtues, and this one has one virtue that is not found in the one with the hundred. We call the first an absolute virtue, and the second a restricted one. Does this one who is distinguished by a virtue not found in the one with many virtues necessitate that he be better than the first? No.
"If we suppose one has attained a type that the best of people has not attained
It does not necessitate that the restriction of merit upon him be an equality or a diminution" Clear.