If a man pronounces zihar against his wife and then divorces her with a final divorce, does the expiation for zihar remain upon him?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : May Allah reward you, O Shaykh. What is the ruling on a man who pronounces a final divorce after having pronounced zihar? Does the expiation for zihar remain upon him?
The Shaykh : First, explain the scenario to me so I know that you understand it.
The questioner : For example, he says: "You are to me as the back of my mother," and then after a few days
The Shaykh : he divorces her with the final divorce?
The questioner : Yes
The Shaykh : She is separated from him, and he owes no expiation for zihar, because he did not return to her, for Allah the Exalted said:[Al-Mujadila 58:3] which means: intercourse.
The Shaykh : First, explain the scenario to me so I know that you understand it.
The questioner : For example, he says: "You are to me as the back of my mother," and then after a few days
The Shaykh : he divorces her with the final divorce?
The questioner : Yes
The Shaykh : She is separated from him, and he owes no expiation for zihar, because he did not return to her, for Allah the Exalted said: