If a man does not have the ability to have sexual intercourse, does his wife divorce him or what does he do?

The questioner : Well, the man has nothing but ... and he divorced ... and married a man who has the ability to have sexual intercourse, or what does he do ...?The Shaykh : No, no, the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) meant that she cannot become lawful to her first husband unless the second husband has sexual intercourse with her. Do you understand?

The questioner : According to her statement, it does not obligate him.

The Shaykh : No, it may be that the man is weak and that he is not ready all the time, meaning that this may not be his permanent nature. For this reason, he said: And it appears that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) understood from him that the man is weak. Yes, but if it is assumed that the man is not weak and that this is his nature and that he is impotent, then here she must be divorced from him or she must marry another man after him. Yes?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : What? ... this.