Did the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) stone anyone? He said: Yes. I said: Was it before Surat al-Nur or after?
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The reciter: Ishaq narrated to me, Khalid narrated to us, from al-Shaybani: Sahih al-Bukhari 6813.
The Shaykh : This question, "Was it before Surat al-Nur or after," implies that if the stoning occurred before Surat al-Nur, then the generality of Surat al-Nur would be abrogating. If Surat al-Nur was revealed later, it might be abrogating. Do you understand, or did you not grasp it?
Surat al-Nur[An-Nur 24:2] This is general. If it was revealed after the stoning by the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him), it is possible that this general verse abrogates the stoning, because it is general.
Some jurists and scholars of legal theory adopted this view, stating that if a general ruling comes after a specific one, it abrogates it. However, the correct view is the opposite, because the ruling of what came before is established, and is it possible or not possible to reconcile it with what came after?
It is possible. Therefore, there is no difference whether the specific comes after the general or the general comes after the specific. In that case, is this question, based on the view we have preferred, applicable or not applicable? Not applicable.
As for his statement: "I do not know", it contains one of the etiquettes of the student of knowledge: if he is asked about something he does not know, he should say, "I do not know." If he says "I do not know," Satan will tell him, "You will be considered ignorant and not a scholar in the eyes of people, and people will turn away from you, saying, 'He has nothing but: I do not know.'" But the truth is that this is deception from Satan. If you say, "I do not know," your scale becomes heavy in the eyes of people, and they know that you do not speak except based on knowledge. In that case, they trust you more and turn to you more. So do not let Satan deceive you into saying, "I do not know" or "I have knowledge." Some people, what Allah willed, sit in the gathering, remove their head covering, roll up their sleeves, sit on their knee, and say, "Who am I? I am the son of Jala and the one who sees the hidden things. Ask me whatever you want: rhetoric, exegesis, hadith, jurisprudence, speech, everything. I am the encyclopedia that reaches millions of pages." This is not correct. A person must know himself completely. Whoever knows himself and estimates his worth, people will estimate his worth. And whoever claims what is not his is a transgressor.
So his statement: "I do not know", and who said "I do not know"?
Abdullah ibn Abi Awfa, one of the Companions of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), said: I do not know. May Allah grant us assistance.
I asked `Abdullah bin Abi `Aufa, 'Did Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) carry out the Rajam penalty ( i.e., stoning to death)?' He said, "Yes." I said, "Before the revelation of Surat-an-Nur or after it?" He replied, "I don't Know."
سألت عبد الله بن أبي أوفى : هل رجم رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم ؟ قال : نعم، قلت : قبل سورة النور أم بعد ؟ قال : لا أدريThe Shaykh : This question, "Was it before Surat al-Nur or after," implies that if the stoning occurred before Surat al-Nur, then the generality of Surat al-Nur would be abrogating. If Surat al-Nur was revealed later, it might be abrogating. Do you understand, or did you not grasp it?
Surat al-Nur
The [unmarried] woman or [unmarried] man found guilty of sexual intercourse - lash each one of them with a hundred lashes
الزانية والزاني فاجلدوا كل واحد منهما مائة جلدةSome jurists and scholars of legal theory adopted this view, stating that if a general ruling comes after a specific one, it abrogates it. However, the correct view is the opposite, because the ruling of what came before is established, and is it possible or not possible to reconcile it with what came after?
It is possible. Therefore, there is no difference whether the specific comes after the general or the general comes after the specific. In that case, is this question, based on the view we have preferred, applicable or not applicable? Not applicable.
As for his statement: "I do not know", it contains one of the etiquettes of the student of knowledge: if he is asked about something he does not know, he should say, "I do not know." If he says "I do not know," Satan will tell him, "You will be considered ignorant and not a scholar in the eyes of people, and people will turn away from you, saying, 'He has nothing but: I do not know.'" But the truth is that this is deception from Satan. If you say, "I do not know," your scale becomes heavy in the eyes of people, and they know that you do not speak except based on knowledge. In that case, they trust you more and turn to you more. So do not let Satan deceive you into saying, "I do not know" or "I have knowledge." Some people, what Allah willed, sit in the gathering, remove their head covering, roll up their sleeves, sit on their knee, and say, "Who am I? I am the son of Jala and the one who sees the hidden things. Ask me whatever you want: rhetoric, exegesis, hadith, jurisprudence, speech, everything. I am the encyclopedia that reaches millions of pages." This is not correct. A person must know himself completely. Whoever knows himself and estimates his worth, people will estimate his worth. And whoever claims what is not his is a transgressor.
So his statement: "I do not know", and who said "I do not know"?
Abdullah ibn Abi Awfa, one of the Companions of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), said: I do not know. May Allah grant us assistance.