I read in a book by the Shaykh Muhammad ibn 'Abd al-Wahhab regarding wudu' that he states one of the conditions of wudu' is istinja' or istijmar before it. Does this mean...
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : I read in a book by the Shaykh Muhammad ibn 'Abd al-Wahhab (may Allah have mercy on him) regarding wudu' that he states one of the conditions of wudu' is istinja' or istijmar before it. Does this mean that wudu' is not valid unless istinja' or istijmar is performed before it every time?
The Shaykh : The Shaykh (may Allah have mercy on him) meant that if a person urinates or defecates and then performs wudu' before cleaning himself, his wudu' is not valid, because he must first clean himself and then perform wudu'. However, if there is no urine or feces, istinja' is not obligatory, and he performs wudu' without it. For example, if a man urinates at eleven in the morning and does not perform wudu', and then the adhan is called for the Zuhr prayer, we say here that he performs wudu' without istinja' because he had already cleaned himself earlier and there is no need to repeat it. This is the meaning of the Shaykh's (may Allah have mercy on him) statement. Yes.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good. The sister questioner says.
The Shaykh : The Shaykh (may Allah have mercy on him) meant that if a person urinates or defecates and then performs wudu' before cleaning himself, his wudu' is not valid, because he must first clean himself and then perform wudu'. However, if there is no urine or feces, istinja' is not obligatory, and he performs wudu' without it. For example, if a man urinates at eleven in the morning and does not perform wudu', and then the adhan is called for the Zuhr prayer, we say here that he performs wudu' without istinja' because he had already cleaned himself earlier and there is no need to repeat it. This is the meaning of the Shaykh's (may Allah have mercy on him) statement. Yes.
The questioner : May Allah reward you with good. The sister questioner says.
