Explanation of the Book of Purification-15

The Shaykh : Then the author said, and this is the lesson for tonight, if Allah wills: "And from 'Ali ibn Abi Talib (may Allah be pleased with him), who said:

I was a man who experienced pre-seminal fluid

كنت رجلاً مذاءً

":
That is: in the past, or is the intended meaning of "was" here to affirm this attribute? The answer is the second, because "was" is used to affirm this attribute without regard to time, and this is common in the names of Allah, such as His saying: and the like. This does not mean that He was so in a past time, but rather that the intent is to affirm this attribute regardless of time.
So then, is not in the past, and I am now free from pre-seminal fluid. And his saying: is a form of exaggeration, meaning: one who has a lot of pre-seminal fluid. And there are two linguistic forms for pre-seminal fluid: al-madhi, which is the most common, and al-madhiyyu with a shadda on the ya, which is a correct linguistic form.
It is a sticky fluid that comes out upon desire, and it does not come out with ejaculation, nor does it require the erection of the penis. Rather, it comes out when a person senses desire, for example, by kissing, looking, or remembering, and this fluid comes out of him. People differ in this; some have little, some have much, and some do not know it at all.
'Ali ibn Abi Talib (may Allah be pleased with him) was among those who were frequently afflicted with this.
: His saying: It may be asked: Why did he not ask himself? It has been explained in another narration that he was shy to ask the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him and his family) because the daughter of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) was with him as his wife, and this concerns women, so he (may Allah be pleased with him) was shy to ask the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him).
And it is asked: Why did he instruct al-Miqdad? Were there not other Companions?
So the answer is: Yes, but he and al-Miqdad ibn al-Aswad took turns in learning from the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him), just as 'Umar (may Allah be pleased with him) took turns in learning from the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) with a companion of his. Therefore, he instructed him to ask the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), and he asked him.
So he said: "

Ablution is required for it

فيه الوضوء

It is agreed upon by al-Bukhari and Muslim, and the wording is al-Bukhari's":
And the author (may Allah have mercy on him) chose this context or this narration for the relevance of the chapter, which is the invalidators of the ablution. Otherwise, this story is relevant to the chapter of the ablution, and also to impurity and how it is removed, and whether pre-seminal fluid is ritually impure or not.
But the author, I mean Ibn Hajar, chose this narration in *Bulugh al-Maram* because the intended meaning is present in it.
So he said: , but there is no harm in mentioning what is related to this, for when al-Miqdad asked the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), he said: , and in a narration: : So this was difficult for the scholars. Does it mean that 'Ali ibn Abi Talib asked the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) himself, as it came in some narrations that he asked himself, or does it mean that when al-Miqdad asked him, he said: because 'Ali is the one narrating the hadith now; he is the one narrating the hadith, so he relates about himself as if he were the questioner. Otherwise, it is known that the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) did not direct him to al-Miqdad as if he were the one afflicted with this, but rather he directed it to 'Ali ibn Abi Talib considering that 'Ali is the one who narrated it, so it is as if he transmitted it by meaning.
So then, if we say: there is no difficulty, because al-Miqdad asked the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) about a man who experiences pre-seminal fluid, what should he do?
So he said: .
And his saying: It is known that the penis is referred to as the entire shaft, not just what was affected by the pre-seminal fluid, otherwise he would have said: wash what was affected. Rather, he said: .
And in a narration in other than *al-Sahihayn*: meaning: his testicles. So according to this, he washes the penis and the testicles, the entire penis.
He said: meaning: and perform the ablution; he washes his penis and performs the ablution.
And in some wordings: .
In any case, the hadith now is in explaining the ruling of pre-seminal fluid: does it invalidate the ablution or not?
So in this hadith, there is clear evidence that it invalidates the ablution, due to his saying: Yes.
But it is said: If a man constantly experiences pre-seminal fluid, because some people are afflicted with this, and he experiences it whenever he remembers, even slightly, and he cannot prevent himself from thinking, then he is treated like one with incontinence if he cannot prevent it.