Ibn Hajar's statement that the Qur'an is not to be recited except by one in a state of purity: does this apply to the whole of it or to a part of it?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : Yes?
The questioner : Ibn Hajar's statement.
The Shaykh : Yes?
The questioner : The statement of al-Hafiz Ibn Hajar: that the Qur'an is not to be recited except by one in a state of purity.
The Shaykh : Except by one in a state of purity, yes.
The questioner : That the Qur'an is not to be touched in its entirety, not just a part of it.
The Shaykh : What?
The questioner : That the Qur'an is not to be touched in its entirety, not just a part of it.
The Shaykh : This also requires knowledge of a rule in the principles of jurisprudence: "The prohibition encompasses all the parts". So if I say: do not eat this loaf, does the meaning imply do not eat all of it, or do not eat anything from it?
The student: The second.
The Shaykh : The second, and not the first?
The second, without a doubt. Do not eat anything from it, because what is prohibited is a harm, and a part of it is a harm. This is unlike the command; with a command, one must perform the whole of it. You understood this, praise be to Allah. This is one of the rules that I excepted in this question.
The prohibition relates to the parts just as it relates to the whole, and the command relates to the whole. But the command, praise be to Allah, is eased:[At-Taghabun 64:16] What one cannot do is not obligatory.
The questioner : Ibn Hajar's statement.
The Shaykh : Yes?
The questioner : The statement of al-Hafiz Ibn Hajar: that the Qur'an is not to be recited except by one in a state of purity.
The Shaykh : Except by one in a state of purity, yes.
The questioner : That the Qur'an is not to be touched in its entirety, not just a part of it.
The Shaykh : What?
The questioner : That the Qur'an is not to be touched in its entirety, not just a part of it.
The Shaykh : This also requires knowledge of a rule in the principles of jurisprudence: "The prohibition encompasses all the parts". So if I say: do not eat this loaf, does the meaning imply do not eat all of it, or do not eat anything from it?
The student: The second.
The Shaykh : The second, and not the first?
The second, without a doubt. Do not eat anything from it, because what is prohibited is a harm, and a part of it is a harm. This is unlike the command; with a command, one must perform the whole of it. You understood this, praise be to Allah. This is one of the rules that I excepted in this question.
The prohibition relates to the parts just as it relates to the whole, and the command relates to the whole. But the command, praise be to Allah, is eased: