Exegesis of the saying of Allah the Exalted: "Men whom neither trade nor sale diverts from the remembrance of Allah and the establishment of prayer and the giving of zakah. They fear a Day in which hearts and eyes will be in turmoil"

"Men" is the subject of "exalt" with the ba' kasrah, and with the ba' fathah it is the agent of the passive verb, and "Men" is the subject of an implied verb in response to an implied question, because it was said, "Who exalts Him?" Now, regarding the explanation of the two mass-transmitted readings, "exalts" and "is exalted": if it is "exalted for Him" in the phrase "in the morning and in the afternoon," is "exalted" built for the agent or for the patient? It is built for the agent. And with that, the statement "Men" as the subject of "exalts" is clear. With the reading "exalted," the verb is built for the patient and requires an agent. It is not fitting for "Men" to be the agent, because if it were the agent, who would be the ones exalting? The men? And that is impossible. So where is the agent? The agent is the preposition and the noun in the genitive in the phrase "for Him" — "exalted for Him." Yes. And if the object is not found in a verb built for the unknown, the adverb of time or place and the preposition with its noun in the genitive take its place, just as if I said, "It was said," where "this" is the explicit agent, or "the striking was struck," and the like, for they take the place of the object. And Ibn Malik said:
" And in place of the object, an adverb or a source or a preposition stands, by the decree of the Creator "
What we have now is "exalted for Him." If we say "for Him" is the agent, it is the adverb and the preposition. The verse in the Alfiyyah:
" And in place of the object, an adverb or a source or a preposition stands, by the decree of the Creator "
Which of the three is it? "Exalted for Him" is from the preposition. So the issue remains with "Men" on the reading "exalted." We say "Men" is the subject of an omitted verb. This omitted verb was necessitated by the word "exalted," because "exalted for Him" is as if it were said, "Who exalts?" or "Who is exalted for Him?" So it was said, "Men." And with this, "Men" becomes the subject of an omitted verb indicated by the mentioned verb, which is "exalted." Ismail, is it clear to you? So "exalted" has two canonical readings: the fathah of the ba' and its kasrah, and the explanation of each of the two readings has now become clear.

[Are] men whom neither commerce

رجال لا تلهيهم تجارة

[An-Nur 24:37]

" meaning purchase The omission of "establishment" is for the sake of lightness They fear a Day in which hearts and eyes will be in turmoil, agitated by fear. The hearts will be between salvation and destruction, and the eyes between two sides, the right and the left, and it is the Day of Resurrection." Allah the Mighty and Majestic says: The word "Men" indicates praise and commendation, just as one says, "So-and-so is a man," meaning that he is characterized by manliness. So the word "Men" undoubtedly indicates commendation, and therefore it is not applied except to the adult of sound mind. And His saying, "Neither trade nor sale diverts them," He did not say, "They do not sell and they do not buy," because the one who does not sell and does not buy may come to the mosque to fill the space, but he is in the midst of selling and buying.