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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Is there *ishtighal* in our saying, "Zayd, I struck"?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : When a person says, "Zayd, I struck," is it not correct to fix the subject (*mubtada'*) due to *ishtighal* with the grammatical case?

The Shaykh : How?

The questioner : Is it not correct to fix the subject due to *ishtighal*?

The Shaykh : What is occupied?

The questioner : The verb is occupied by the pronoun.

The Shaykh : It is occupied by the pronoun, which is why it did not put it in the accusative case. However, if you say, "Zayd, I struck," we say: this is not correct; you must say, "Zayd, I struck" (with *Zayd* in the accusative).
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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