What is obligatory for the pilgrim if he did not perform the Tawaf of Ifadah, traveled to his country, and had intercourse with his wife?

The questioner : The second question: A man traveled to his land and did not perform the Tawaf of Ifadah. What is the ruling on this, given that he had intercourse with his wife during that period?

The Shaykh : This man must refrain from his wife because he has performed the first release (tahallul) but not the second. One who has performed the first release but not the second is permitted to do everything except have intercourse with women. He is obligated to go to Makkah and perform the Tawaf of Ifadah to complete his rites. As for his having intercourse with his wife during this period, if he was ignorant, he owes nothing, because there is no penalty for any of the prohibitions if committed out of ignorance. If he was knowledgeable, he owes a sheep, as stated by the scholars, which he must slaughter and distribute to the poor. He must also enter the state of ihram to perform the Tawaf of Ifadah while in ihram, because his ihram was invalidated by his intercourse after the release. Yes.

The questioner : May Allah bless you.
This questioner is Sa'id Muhammad.