Returning to the previous topic, in the first verse he said: “So I intended to disfigure it.” This is an act of evil.

The questioner : In the same question, in the second verse he said: “So we feared.”

The Shaykh : .

The questioner ... Why did he attribute the action to himself ... even though it is an act of good?

The Shaykh : Why did he attribute it to?

The questioner : Is this action for Allah (Mighty and Majestic) or not? Even though this action is an act of good, meaning? In the first he said: This is an act of evil, and this is politeness toward Allah that it be attributed to him. And in the third verse he said: regarding the uncovering of the treasure that it is good; so he attributed it to Allah (Mighty and Majestic). In the second verse, even though it is an act of good, he attributed it to him ...?

The Shaykh : Yes, .

The questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : Good or evil?

The questioner : Good with respect to the parents.

The Shaykh : Yes, so this fear that he feared is good, so he attributed it to himself, and its origin is with his Lord.

The questioner : No, I mean that the origin of everything is for Allah (Mighty and Majestic), but he did it out of politeness toward Allah (Mighty and Majestic).

The Shaykh : The first one contains politeness.

The questioner : So this is a matter of two types, so he attributed it to himself.

The Shaykh : But that is how it is.

The questioner : Okay, why in the second one, even though it contains goodness, did he attribute it to himself?

The Shaykh : He did not attribute it to himself only.

The questioner : Yes, to him and to Allah (Mighty and Majestic).

The Shaykh : Yes, because Allah is the origin, Allah is the origin in everything, but there is a verbal prohibition there as we said, and here there is no prohibition, so he said: .
Please proceed.