If a man has intercourse with his wife in Ramadan and is unable to pay the expiation, but it becomes easy for him later, does it remain a debt on him?

The questioner : If a person has intercourse with his wife in Ramadan and is unable to pay the expiation, it is known that it is dropped. But if he is able to pay it later, is the expiation obligatory on him? And if it is obligatory, what is the evidence?

The Shaykh : What did he say? What is known?

The questioner : It is known that it is dropped?

The Shaykh : It is not known that it is dropped. It is known that it is obligatory. The question, as posed, is that he was unable to pay, and then he became able to pay later. Our answer is: if he was unable to pay, and he did not offer any expiation at all, it remains a liability on his neck. However, if he was able to pay, like the man who had intercourse with his wife in Ramadan, and the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) ordered him to expiate by fasting two consecutive months, and he said, "Nothing broke my fast but fasting," and he ordered him to feed sixty poor people, and he said, "There is no one between its two banks poorer than me," then the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) brought him some wealth and gave him approximately fifteen sa' (a dry measure of about 3 kg) of dates, and said, "Give it in charity." He answered with the previous answer: "There is no one between its two banks poorer than me." He said, "Then spend it on yourself and your family." This means he considered that he had expiated. So if the question is that he did not expiate, the issue remains a liability on his neck.

The questioner : Meaning the expiation is not dropped, but it is obligatory in the case of ability.

The Shaykh : Ability, yes.