A man who married twenty years ago in Sha'ban and had intercourse with his wife during the day in Ramadan out of ignorance on the part of both of them, and had intercourse with her for two days in the second Ramadan, what is his obligation?

The questioner : This questioner, your brother who is confused, says: I married twenty years ago in Sha'ban. He says: And I used to come to my wife throughout the day, I had intercourse with her in Ramadan out of ignorance on my part and on her part regarding that. In fact, I used to come to her every day in the other Ramadan, so what is my obligation? Does he have to pay an expiation or fast?

The Shaykh : If he was truly ignorant, thinking that only eating and drinking break the fast, and that intercourse does not break the fast, then he owes nothing. And this is actually far-fetched for one who has lived among people.
As for if he was knowledgeable but did not know that an expiation was required of him, then the expiation is required of him. If he had intercourse every day, he owes thirty expiations if the month was thirty days, or twenty-nine expiations if the month was twenty-nine days. And likewise in the second Ramadan, yes.
And the expiation is freeing a slave, and if he does not find one, then fasting two consecutive months, and if he does not find that, then feeding sixty poor people.