Intercourse in Ramadan: If the expiation becomes obligatory but one is unable to pay it, and then later finds the ability to do so, is it obligatory for him to pay the expiation?

The questioner : If a man has intercourse with his wife in Ramadan and is unable to pay the expiation, it is known that it is dropped. But if he becomes able to pay it later, is the expiation obligatory for him? And if it is obligatory, what is the evidence?

The Shaykh : What did he say? What is known?

The questioner : It is known that it is dropped.

The Shaykh : How is it dropped?

Another questioner : If he is not able to pay it.

The Shaykh : ... It is known that it is dropped? It is known that it is obligatory. Rather, the question was raised, meaning, if he was not able to pay it and then became able to pay it later, the answer here is: If he was not able to pay it and no expiation was offered at all, it remains hanging around his neck. However, if he was given the opportunity, like the man who had intercourse with his wife in Ramadan and the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) ordered him to expiate by fasting two consecutive months, and he said, "Nothing has broken my fast but fasting," and he was ordered to feed sixty poor people, and he said, "There is no one poorer than me between the two banks of the river." Then the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) brought him some wealth and gave him about fifteen sa' (a dry measure of about 3 kg) of dates, and said, "Give it in charity," so he gave the previous answer: "There is no one poorer than me between the two banks of the river." He said: . This means he was considered to have expiated. So if, in the question, he did not expiate, the matter remains hanging around his neck.

The questioner : Meaning the expiation is not dropped?

The Shaykh : It is not dropped.

The questioner : Rather, it is obligatory in the case of ability.

The Shaykh : Ability, yes.