Discussion on delaying the Fajr prayer beyond its time for the sake of staying up late.

The Shaykh : And our Lord, Mighty and Majestic, created man in the best of forms, without doubt, and He decreed for him a need for food, for drink, for rest, and for sleep. Every person needs hours of rest through sleep, especially if he is young, as he may need more hours. If he stays up for two hours after the 'Isha' prayer, he will compensate for them by leaving the Fajr prayer. So we tell him: organize your life, organize your hours of rest and sleep. Sleep early and wake up early. In that case, it will be easy for you to pray the Fajr prayer first in its time, and not after the sun has risen. Second: you pray it with the congregation of the Muslims, as is the case with the other prayers, as mentioned in the first answer. Then we tell him: this prayer that he prays after the sun has risen has no value, except in one case: if he followed the Sunnah and slept early, then sleep overtook him, and he woke up after the sun had risen, let him pray it when he remembers it. There is no expiation for it other than that. As for changing his lifestyle and making his life contrary to the Shari'ah and considering that an excuse for him, sleeping in the middle of the night... waking up in the middle of the day. He says, "I cannot do it." My brother, sleep at the beginning of the night, and you will be able to get up at the end of the night, and so on. So this prayer that he always, always prays after the sun has risen has no value in the Shari'ah, ever.
Does this prayer suffice, and what is the sin that results from it? Or is he considered a disbeliever? I say this prayer does not suffice, meaning his conscience is not cleared by performing the Fajr prayer always, always after the sun has risen, except in the case I mentioned just now. The summary of that is that he sleeps after the 'Isha' prayer, so if sleep overtook him and he woke up after the sun had risen, there is no blame on him; he was sleeping. But if he persists in his previous methodology, it is not permissible, and this prayer does not suffice for him. Is he considered a disbeliever? Or merely negligent? We say: he is not considered a disbeliever if he acknowledges the legitimacy of this prayer, each in its time, and his conscience, as it is said today, rebukes him for his negligence. So he is not considered a disbeliever.

The questioner : Unlike the atheist,

The Shaykh : Unlike the atheist, he is not considered a disbeliever, but rather he is considered one who is negligent to the greatest extent of negligence. And finally, he performed the obligatory Hajj; is it considered valid? We say: if he performed the obligatory Hajj with its conditions and its pillars, it is valid. Is that clear?

The questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : And is it permissible or not? The answer is. Well, and is it? From the same man?