What is the ruling on a woman visiting her relatives in the lands of the disbelievers, and does her husband sin if he prevents her from doing so?
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The questioner : O our Shaykh, this is a fiqh question. We know from the religion of Allah (Glorified and Exalted is He) that we are forbidden from residing in the lands of the disbelievers. However, if for example a woman’s relatives live in the lands of the disbelievers, and she asks her husband to let her go visit them, and she has a mahram with her, of course, is she permitted to go? And if he prevents her, does that become a cause for severing family ties, and does he become sinful before Allah (Blessed and Exalted is He)?
The Shaykh : If you say “is she permitted or not permitted?”
The questioner : I mean, is she permitted by the Shari'ah, of course?
The Shaykh : No, she is not permitted. She is permitted.
The questioner : Is she permitted by the Shari'ah? My question is, is she permitted by the Shari'ah?
The Shaykh : No, because what did the completeness come for?
The questioner : I meant the word “permitted.”
The Shaykh : Okay, and the completeness?
The questioner : Is she permitted by the Shari'ah to go, and if she goes with her husband, does he become sinful?
The Shaykh : I believe that the answer to this question is based on one of two opinions. One is that it is not permissible for a Muslim man or woman, naturally, to travel to the lands of disbelief absolutely. And in my belief, no one among the scholars holds this view, because it is well known that the Companions used to travel, trade, and go to the lands of disbelief. So only the second opinion remains. What is the second opinion? It is permissible for a Muslim to go to the lands of disbelief with conditions, which we have mentioned more than once. First: he does not go to reside there, but rather he goes for a benefit, even if it is a material or commercial benefit, let alone if the benefit is a religious one, such as applying a text, for example[An-Naml 27:69]. This is if the woman, now we enter the core of the answer to the question, if the woman wants to travel to the lands of disbelief for a matter that is permissible by the Shari'ah, then it is obviously permissible by the Shari'ah. And if it is for a recommended matter, then it is recommended by the Shari'ah. And if it is for an obligatory matter, then it is obligatory by the Shari'ah. So the issue is exactly like a mathematical operation, clear in its features, and not hidden, if Allah wills, from a Muslim who knows the Shari'ah of Allah (Blessed and Exalted is He).
The Shaykh : If you say “is she permitted or not permitted?”
The questioner : I mean, is she permitted by the Shari'ah, of course?
The Shaykh : No, she is not permitted. She is permitted.
The questioner : Is she permitted by the Shari'ah? My question is, is she permitted by the Shari'ah?
The Shaykh : No, because what did the completeness come for?
The questioner : I meant the word “permitted.”
The Shaykh : Okay, and the completeness?
The questioner : Is she permitted by the Shari'ah to go, and if she goes with her husband, does he become sinful?
The Shaykh : I believe that the answer to this question is based on one of two opinions. One is that it is not permissible for a Muslim man or woman, naturally, to travel to the lands of disbelief absolutely. And in my belief, no one among the scholars holds this view, because it is well known that the Companions used to travel, trade, and go to the lands of disbelief. So only the second opinion remains. What is the second opinion? It is permissible for a Muslim to go to the lands of disbelief with conditions, which we have mentioned more than once. First: he does not go to reside there, but rather he goes for a benefit, even if it is a material or commercial benefit, let alone if the benefit is a religious one, such as applying a text, for example
Say, [O Muhammad], "Travel through the land and observe
قل سيروا في الأرض فانظروا
Source
www.al-albany.com
The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.
