A man who contracted marriage with a woman, entered her home, was alone with her, and enjoyed her without intercourse, then divorced her: is it permissible for him to marry her daughter?
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The Shaykh : Now, here is a question: A man contracted a valid marriage with a woman, entered her home, and enjoyed her without intercourse, then divorced her. Is it permissible for him to marry her daughter?
And would her daughter be a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to him? What is the answer?
The questioner : It is not permissible, because she becomes forbidden by the contract.
The Shaykh : No, it is permissible, because Allah says:[An-Nisa 4:23] meaning: if you have not had intercourse with them, there is no blame on you. Accordingly, this daughter, meaning the daughter of the divorced woman with whom her husband was alone but did not have intercourse, is halal (lawful) for him in terms of marriage; he may marry her, and she is not a mahram to him, because she is not among his mahram relatives. This issue may be obscure to many people; they think that if he contracted marriage with her, was alone with her, and treated her without intercourse, her daughter becomes forbidden to him and he becomes a mahram to her, but that is not the case. Yes.
And would her daughter be a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to him? What is the answer?
The questioner : It is not permissible, because she becomes forbidden by the contract.
The Shaykh : No, it is permissible, because Allah says:
