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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Continuation of the explanation of the verse.

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He said: "And the righteous among your male and female slaves, meaning, and marry the righteous, that is, the believers among your male and female slaves. 'Abd (slave) is the plural of 'abd (servant)." This is with regard to the slaves; it is an address to the masters, meaning, marry the righteous, wed the righteous among your male and female slaves. The author’s description of the righteous as believers indicates that the author understood righteousness here as righteousness in religion, and righteousness in religion is through faith and righteous deeds. However, it is possible that it includes righteousness in both religion and worldly affairs, meaning that if a slave is righteous in his religion and righteous in his worldly affairs, in the sense that he is fit to be married because he has reached the age of marriage, because he knows the matters of marriage, and because he is of sound mind such that no harm arises from his marriage and no right of his wife is neglected, it is important that the righteous be interpreted as righteous in religion and in worldly affairs, meaning fit to be married and to be given in marriage. As for if one of us has a slave who is insane, we are not commanded to marry him in any case. Rather, we look to see if there is harm in not marrying him; if so, we marry him, otherwise we do not, because this would be a harm to others. The conclusion is that the righteous among the slaves is married in all cases, and the non-righteous is married only if there is a need for his marriage because harm would result from not marrying him. We are commanded to do this not from this verse, but from the prevention of harm, which is the general principle in the Shari'ah, the prevention of harm.
And His saying:
from your servants من عبادكم
'Abd is the plural of 'abd, and the intended meaning is the slaves who belong to us. Allah called them 'abid (servants) because they are humble before us and we are their masters. Yes, they are humble by nature and by law. As for by law, it is clear that my slave, I sell him and buy him, I command him and forbid him. And by nature, as is known, the slaves see themselves as inferior to their masters, and this is a favor because Allah humbled them for their masters. Otherwise, if he rebelled against his master like a camel that goes wild, and the slave if he runs away... this is not for anyone... in any case, Allah the Exalted has humbled the slaves by law and humbled them by nature, so Allah called them our servants.
the righteous among your male slaves and female slaves والصالحين من عبادكم وإمائكم
[An-Nur 24:32]
is the plural of 'amah (female slave), which is the female slave who is owned. In this is an indication that the slave does not marry himself, due to His saying, "Marry them," "Wed them." This is if the address is directed to the masters. But if the address is directed to the general public, meaning that a person should not be arrogant about marrying a slave or a female slave, but this is unlikely, and the apparent meaning is that the address here is to the masters, meaning, wed the righteous in their religion and worldly affairs, wed them from female and male slaves.
In this verse, there is a difficulty from two aspects: the first aspect is in 'abid (servants), and the second aspect is in 'imaa (female slaves). For the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) said:
Let none of you say, "My slave" and "My female slave" لا يقل أحدكم عبدي وأمتي
As-Sunan al-Kubra lil-Nasa'i 64:720
And here it says, "your servants and your female slaves." And he (peace and blessings be upon him) said:
Do not prevent the female servant your women from visiting the mosques of Allah. لا تمنعوا إماء الله مساجد الله
Sunan Abi Dawud 566
So, is there a contradiction between the hadith and this verse, or not?
The student: ...

The Shaykh : The truth is that their apparent meaning is contradictory, but the reconciliation between them is clear. The address here is "your servants" from Allah to the person; He called him a servant and a slave to him, just as it is correct to say, "This is so-and-so's slave" and "This is his female slave," and the like. But the prohibited thing, and that which the prohibition was mentioned regarding, is for a person to attribute the servitude of these people to himself. This is what is prohibited, meaning, the master attributing servitude and female slavery to himself. This is the prohibited thing. Why? Because it involves arrogance about himself and pride over his slave and looking down on him. To say, "O my slave, come up," or "O my female slave, come up," there is no doubt that he feels greatness and elevation, and the other feels that before him and submission. It should not be like this, and therefore the prohibition came regarding it. But if the matter is the opposite, and the attribution comes from other than the master, then there is no harm. Just as the slave is prohibited from saying, "My Lord," to his master, and from saying, "My master." But if you said, "O slave, speak to your Lord, call upon your Lord for me," is that permissible or not? This is permissible. The same thing, if the slave addresses his master with lordship, we say this is prohibited because that one becomes arrogant and this one becomes humble. And therefore it came in the hadith, he said: "Inform me of its signs" The hadith of Jibril, the signs of the Hour, he said:
that the female slave gives birth to her master أن تلد الأمة ربها
Sunan ad-Daraqutni 15:114
Attribution to the first-person pronoun is prohibited for the master; he does not say, "My slave" and "My female slave," and he does not say, "My Lord." But attribution to other than the first-person pronoun is permissible, and the difference between them in meaning is clear.
Then Allah the Exalted said:
If they should be poor, Allah will enrich them from His bounty إن يكونوا فقراء يغنهم الله من فضله
[An-Nur 24:32]
"If they are, that is, the free people, poor, Allah will enrich them by marriage from His bounty, and Allah is vast in His creation and Knowing of them." If they are poor, meaning, the ones being married. And the author’s saying, "that is, the free people," why did he specify it with the free people, while the verse says, "the free among you and the righteous among your servants and female slaves," then it says, "If they are poor"? Because wealth and poverty are not conceivable for female slaves, because they do not own anything. And the evidence is that he does not own, the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him):
Whoever sells a slave who has wealth, his wealth belongs to the one who sold him, unless the buyer stipulates it من باع عبدا وله مال فماله للذي باعه إلا أن يشرطه المبتاع
Sahih Ibn Hibban 26:20
His wealth belongs to the one who sold him, he did not say, "to the one who sold him," so the slave does not own, therefore he is poor, he cannot become rich. But it may be said that the rich one is his master, meaning, marry your slave, and Allah will enrich him from His bounty, meaning, He will expand for him from His bounty, and he will marry him, when Allah commanded marriage and made it clear that He will enrich the poor from His bounty.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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