Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And the genitive is marked with the fathah for that which does not decline, *** provided it is not attached to a possessive or preceded by the article with a suffix."
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The Shaykh : The author said:
"And the genitive is marked with the fathah for that which does not decline, *** provided it is not attached to a possessive or preceded by the article with a suffix"
The word "genitive" (jar) can be interpreted as a past tense verb in the passive voice, meaning that the Arabs declined the words that do not decline. It can also be interpreted as an imperative verb meaning "decline it." Both interpretations are permissible. If it is taken as an imperative, then the phrase "that which does not decline" is the object of the verb, and "ma" (that which) is the object of the genitive. If it is taken as a passive verb with no named agent, then "ma" is the passive subject.
The author said: "The genitive is marked with the fathah for that which does not decline". This is a case where one vowel replaces another; here, the fathah replaces the kasrah. In the nominative case, it is raised with the dammah according to the original rule, and in the accusative case, it is marked with the fathah according to the original rule. Thus, it resembles the sound feminine plural, where one vowel replaces another in one of the cases of inflection, or perhaps not. However, in the sound feminine plural, the kasrah replaces the fathah, whereas here the fathah replaces the kasrah, which is the opposite. As for his statement: "that which does not decline", what is it that does not decline? Does 'Umar not decline, or does he? Do you decline 'Umar? No, I do not decline him; rather, I leave him as is, speak to him, and honor him. We only decline a person who deserves to be dismissed, correct? Now, the scholars define that which does not decline as: "that which contains two of the nine causes of non-declension, or one cause that serves the function of two" — may you be well.
The student: If Allah wills.
The Shaykh : Yes, he says: The noun that does not decline is what? It is that which contains two of the nine causes of non-declension, or one cause that serves the function of two. I will repeat it a third time: The noun that does not decline is that which contains two of the nine causes of non-declension, or one cause that serves the function of two. And the meaning of "declension" (israf) is tanwin (dual vowel ending), as Ibn Malik said in *al-Afiah*:
"Declension is tanwin that came to clarify *** the meaning, thereby making the noun more distinct"
"And the genitive is marked with the fathah for that which does not decline, *** provided it is not attached to a possessive or preceded by the article with a suffix"
The word "genitive" (jar) can be interpreted as a past tense verb in the passive voice, meaning that the Arabs declined the words that do not decline. It can also be interpreted as an imperative verb meaning "decline it." Both interpretations are permissible. If it is taken as an imperative, then the phrase "that which does not decline" is the object of the verb, and "ma" (that which) is the object of the genitive. If it is taken as a passive verb with no named agent, then "ma" is the passive subject.
The author said: "The genitive is marked with the fathah for that which does not decline". This is a case where one vowel replaces another; here, the fathah replaces the kasrah. In the nominative case, it is raised with the dammah according to the original rule, and in the accusative case, it is marked with the fathah according to the original rule. Thus, it resembles the sound feminine plural, where one vowel replaces another in one of the cases of inflection, or perhaps not. However, in the sound feminine plural, the kasrah replaces the fathah, whereas here the fathah replaces the kasrah, which is the opposite. As for his statement: "that which does not decline", what is it that does not decline? Does 'Umar not decline, or does he? Do you decline 'Umar? No, I do not decline him; rather, I leave him as is, speak to him, and honor him. We only decline a person who deserves to be dismissed, correct? Now, the scholars define that which does not decline as: "that which contains two of the nine causes of non-declension, or one cause that serves the function of two" — may you be well.
The student: If Allah wills.
The Shaykh : Yes, he says: The noun that does not decline is what? It is that which contains two of the nine causes of non-declension, or one cause that serves the function of two. I will repeat it a third time: The noun that does not decline is that which contains two of the nine causes of non-declension, or one cause that serves the function of two. And the meaning of "declension" (israf) is tanwin (dual vowel ending), as Ibn Malik said in *al-Afiah*:
"Declension is tanwin that came to clarify *** the meaning, thereby making the noun more distinct"