Explanation of the author's statement: "It becomes obligatory with the setting of the sun on the night of Eid al-Fitr. So whoever embraces Islam after that, or acquires a slave, or marries, or has a child born to him, his zakat al-fitr is not obligatory upon him. But before that, it is obligatory."
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : All right, then the author (may Allah have mercy on him) said: "It becomes obligatory with the setting of the sun on the night of Eid al-Fitr". "It becomes obligatory" — the pronoun refers to zakat al-fitr. "With the setting of the sun on the night of Eid al-Fitr" — is the preposition "with" here to be understood as "in" (indicating time), or as causal? It is causal, just as we say that the midday prayer becomes obligatory with the passing of the sun from its zenith. So this becomes obligatory with the setting of the sun on the night of Eid al-Fitr. This is the time when it becomes obligatory. The reason it is so is that it is called the charity of Eid, and it is attributed to it. And Eid from Ramadan is realized by the setting of the sun on the night of Eid al-Fitr. But how do we know that the night is the night of Eid al-Fitr? Knowing that is easy. If we have completed thirty days, then the setting of the sun on the thirtieth day is certainly the time of Eid. And if we have not completed the month and we waited for the crescent moon but did not see it, then the night is from Ramadan until we are certain. Sunan an-Nasa'i 2124Sahih (Darussalam) All right, what follows from our statement that it becomes obligatory with the setting of the sun on the night of Eid al-Fitr? The following follows: "So whoever embraces Islam after that, there is no zakat al-fitr upon him". This means a man who embraces Islam on the night of Eid al-Fitr; we say there is no zakat al-fitr upon you because at the time of obligation, you were not among those upon whom it is obligatory. All right.
"Or acquires a slave" — in that case, there is no zakat al-fitr for the slave if he acquired him after the setting of the sun. Upon whom is the zakat al-fitr of the slave? Upon the first owner, because at the time of obligation, he was his property, so it becomes obligatory upon the first owner.
"Or marries" — marrying means the contract was concluded for him, or he entered upon her after the sunset. If the contract was concluded for him and he did not enter upon her, the matter is clear: if the contract was concluded after the sunset, it is clear that the zakat al-fitr of this wife is not obligatory upon him, because at the time of sunset, she was not his wife. If he contracted with her before the sunset but did not enter upon her until after the sunset, the apparent meaning of the author's words is that zakat al-fitr is obligatory upon him, i.e., upon the husband, because his statement "marries" means the marriage contract, and its apparent meaning is that if he marries, even if he does not enter upon her until the night of Eid, the zakat al-fitr is upon him. As for the school of thought (madhhab), there is no zakat al-fitr upon him. Why? Because her financial maintenance is not obligatory upon him until he takes possession of her, as long as she is with her people. So there is no maintenance upon him, and the zakat al-fitr follows the maintenance. Accordingly, if he contracts with a woman in Ramadan and does not enter upon her until after the night prayer on the night of Eid, there is no zakat al-fitr upon him, because her maintenance is not obligatory upon him except by taking possession of her.
And according to the stronger opinion, there is nothing upon him absolutely, even if he entered upon her in Ramadan. Yes, or marries. "Or has a child born to him" — meaning after the sunset, meaning he is blessed with a male or female child after the setting of the sun. In that case, the zakat al-fitr is not obligatory upon him, but it is recommended, because it is a fetus. All right.
"And before that, it is obligatory" — before what? It means if these things occur before the sunset, then the zakat al-fitr is obligatory. What occurred? If he embraced Islam before the sunset, even by a moment, the zakat al-fitr is obligatory upon him, because at the time of obligation, he was among those upon whom it is obligatory.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, or marries, or has a child born to him. That is incorrect.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : He gave the example, yes. "And before that, it is obligatory upon him". All right, a person who acquired a slave before the sunset by a minute, the zakat al-fitr is obligatory upon him, right? All right, if a child is born to him before the sunset by a minute, it is obligatory upon him. Marries, meaning he entered upon his wife according to the school of thought, did he enter upon his wife before the sunset by a minute? It is obligatory upon him, yes, yes. A traveler, easy, yes. Entering by intercourse, a traveler, the important thing is that he entered before the sunset by one minute, then that, yes, makes the zakat al-fitr obligatory upon him. And the apparent meaning of the words of the author, the matn, is that if the contract is concluded for him, even if he does not enter upon her, if the contract is concluded before the sunset, it becomes obligatory. All right.
Then the author said, clarifying the time of its output, his statement "it becomes obligatory with the setting of the sun" — this contains a clarification of the time of obligation, which is the cause. But when is it output?
Fast when you see it and stop fasting when you see it, and if it is obscured from you (too cloudy), then complete thirty (days).
صوموا لرؤيته وأفطروا لرؤيته فإن غُمّ عليكم فأكملوا العدّة ثلاثين"Or acquires a slave" — in that case, there is no zakat al-fitr for the slave if he acquired him after the setting of the sun. Upon whom is the zakat al-fitr of the slave? Upon the first owner, because at the time of obligation, he was his property, so it becomes obligatory upon the first owner.
"Or marries" — marrying means the contract was concluded for him, or he entered upon her after the sunset. If the contract was concluded for him and he did not enter upon her, the matter is clear: if the contract was concluded after the sunset, it is clear that the zakat al-fitr of this wife is not obligatory upon him, because at the time of sunset, she was not his wife. If he contracted with her before the sunset but did not enter upon her until after the sunset, the apparent meaning of the author's words is that zakat al-fitr is obligatory upon him, i.e., upon the husband, because his statement "marries" means the marriage contract, and its apparent meaning is that if he marries, even if he does not enter upon her until the night of Eid, the zakat al-fitr is upon him. As for the school of thought (madhhab), there is no zakat al-fitr upon him. Why? Because her financial maintenance is not obligatory upon him until he takes possession of her, as long as she is with her people. So there is no maintenance upon him, and the zakat al-fitr follows the maintenance. Accordingly, if he contracts with a woman in Ramadan and does not enter upon her until after the night prayer on the night of Eid, there is no zakat al-fitr upon him, because her maintenance is not obligatory upon him except by taking possession of her.
And according to the stronger opinion, there is nothing upon him absolutely, even if he entered upon her in Ramadan. Yes, or marries. "Or has a child born to him" — meaning after the sunset, meaning he is blessed with a male or female child after the setting of the sun. In that case, the zakat al-fitr is not obligatory upon him, but it is recommended, because it is a fetus. All right.
"And before that, it is obligatory" — before what? It means if these things occur before the sunset, then the zakat al-fitr is obligatory. What occurred? If he embraced Islam before the sunset, even by a moment, the zakat al-fitr is obligatory upon him, because at the time of obligation, he was among those upon whom it is obligatory.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, or marries, or has a child born to him. That is incorrect.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : He gave the example, yes. "And before that, it is obligatory upon him". All right, a person who acquired a slave before the sunset by a minute, the zakat al-fitr is obligatory upon him, right? All right, if a child is born to him before the sunset by a minute, it is obligatory upon him. Marries, meaning he entered upon his wife according to the school of thought, did he enter upon his wife before the sunset by a minute? It is obligatory upon him, yes, yes. A traveler, easy, yes. Entering by intercourse, a traveler, the important thing is that he entered before the sunset by one minute, then that, yes, makes the zakat al-fitr obligatory upon him. And the apparent meaning of the words of the author, the matn, is that if the contract is concluded for him, even if he does not enter upon her, if the contract is concluded before the sunset, it becomes obligatory. All right.
Then the author said, clarifying the time of its output, his statement "it becomes obligatory with the setting of the sun" — this contains a clarification of the time of obligation, which is the cause. But when is it output?