Is wiping part of the head sufficient in wudu'?
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The questioner : The fifth question: Is it sufficient to wipe part of the head in wudu'? And if the answer is no, what is the response to what al-Shawkani and others mentioned, namely that the term "wiping" is fulfilled by wiping part of the head, just as saying "I hit the man's head" does not necessitate that the hit falls on the entire head? And the verse is not of the type of ambiguous text such that it can be said that the action of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) indicates obligation? Knowing that the preposition "bi" (with) is not for partiality but for attachment, as the linguists say?
The Shaykh : I do not find in the words of al-Shawkani (may Allah have mercy on him) anything that serves as a proof for his claim that it is permissible to suffice with wiping a quarter of the head. This is because what he denied is applicable to him, which is that the noble verse, as he claims, does not indicate wiping the entire head. I say: it also does not negate wiping the entire head. Thus, from the Arabic perspective, there is no evidence in the verse, neither negative nor affirmative. Therefore, one must return to the clarification to which Allah (Mighty and Majestic) referred in His saying (Glorified and Exalted is He), addressing the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him):[An-Nahl 16:44]. And since it is established in the authentic Sunnah that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him): sometimes, and if he had a turban on his head and wiped the front of his head, he completed the wiping over the turban. This back-and-forth in teaching the wiping of the head first, then completing it by wiping over the turban second, and the fact that nothing contradicts this indication second, all of this indicates to us that the entire head must be wiped. This is what I have.
The questioner : That is, the action of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) is an explanation of the verse in His saying:. Yes.
Another questioner : That is, the linguistic indication in the Qur'anic text is like His saying (Glorified and Exalted is He) in the verse of tayammum:.
The Shaykh: Yes.
The questioner : So the linguistic text and the Prophetic action meet at one point.
Another questioner: Yes.
The questioner : And Allah knows best.
The Shaykh: Yes.
The Shaykh : I do not find in the words of al-Shawkani (may Allah have mercy on him) anything that serves as a proof for his claim that it is permissible to suffice with wiping a quarter of the head. This is because what he denied is applicable to him, which is that the noble verse, as he claims, does not indicate wiping the entire head. I say: it also does not negate wiping the entire head. Thus, from the Arabic perspective, there is no evidence in the verse, neither negative nor affirmative. Therefore, one must return to the clarification to which Allah (Mighty and Majestic) referred in His saying (Glorified and Exalted is He), addressing the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him):
And We revealed to you the message that you may make clear to the people what was sent down to them
وَأَنْزَلْنَا إِلَيْكَ الذِّكْرَ لِتُبَيِّنَ لِلنَّاسِ مَا نُزِّلَ إِلَيْهِمْHe would wipe his entire head, going forward and backward.
كان يعمُّ بالمسح رأسه كله إقبالًا وإدبارًاThe questioner : That is, the action of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) is an explanation of the verse in His saying:
And wipe your heads
وَامْسَحُوا بِرُءُوسِكُمْAnother questioner : That is, the linguistic indication in the Qur'anic text is like His saying (Glorified and Exalted is He) in the verse of tayammum:
And wipe your faces
فَامْسَحُوا بِوُجُوهِكُمْThe Shaykh: Yes.
The questioner : So the linguistic text and the Prophetic action meet at one point.
Another questioner: Yes.
The questioner : And Allah knows best.
The Shaykh: Yes.
Source
www.al-albany.com
The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.