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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Urinating before the full ritual bath is not a condition for the validity of the full ritual bath

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Fatwa number ( 2550 )
Q: One of my brothers informed me that if a Muslim has intercourse with his wife, he must urinate before he performs the full ritual bath, otherwise he remains in a state of major ritual impurity; because the seminal fluid in the penis is not removed except by urination, as that Muslim brother told us. What is your opinion, Your Eminence?
A: Praise be to Allah alone, and blessings and peace be upon His Messenger, his family, and his Companions... And to proceed: No, his full ritual bath is valid even if he does not urinate. If he urinates afterwards and some of the semen comes out of him, either alone or with the urine, without any sexual desire, he does not have to perform a second full ritual bath. It is sufficient for him to perform istinja' (cleaning oneself after relieving oneself) and the prescribed ablution. And success is from Allah, and may Allah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad, his family, and his Companions.
Source www.alifta.gov.sa

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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