A word by the Shaykh regarding the interpretation of the saying of Allah the Exalted: "And the recompense for an evil is an evil like it. But whoever pardons and makes reconciliation - his reward is [due] from Allah. Indeed, He does not like the wrongdoers."

Machine translationRead the Arabic original

The Shaykh : After this reminder, we are speaking about a verse we heard from our imams, which is the saying of Allah, Blessed and Exalted is He:

And the retribution for an evil act is an evil one like it, but whoever pardons and makes reconciliation - his reward is [due] from Allah. Indeed, He does not like wrongdoers.

وجزاء سيئة سيئة مثلها فمن عفا وأصلح فأجره على الله إنه لا يحب الظالمين

[Ash-Shuraa 42:40]

The recompense for an evil is an evil like it. This means that if a person wrongs you, you have the right to wrong him in the same manner as he wronged you. If he hit you on the back once, hit him on the back once; this is like this. If you hit him twice, you have transgressed against him. If you pardon, you have pardoned. If you do not hit him, you have pardoned. Now, if he calls you "beast" and you call him "beast," you have recompensed an evil with its like. But if you call him "donkey," you have transgressed against him. Why? Because a beast is lighter than a donkey? A beast might be a camel, and the camel is a good animal, but the donkey is an impure animal, as mentioned in the hadith narrated by Anas ibn Malik (may Allah be pleased with him)

The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) ordered that it be announced to the people on the day of Khaybar: "Indeed, Allah and His Messenger forbid you from eating the flesh of domestic donkeys, for they are an abomination."

أن النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم أمر أن ينادي في الناس يوم خيبر: إن الله ورسوله ينهيانكم عن لحوم الحمر الأهلية فإنها رجس

Is it impure? Good. If he says "May Allah curse you," do you say to him "No, may Allah curse you"? The scholars said yes, you say that to him because Allah says: the recompense for an evil is an evil like it. Now, let us move to larger issues. If a person commits a crime against another and cuts off his hand, do we cut off the hand of the one who cut it, if the conditions of qisas (retaliation in kind) are met? Do we cut off the hand of the one who cut it if the conditions of qisas are met? Do we cut off the hand of the one who cut it if the conditions of qisas are met? The answer is yes. But do we cut off his leg, assuming that the hand corresponding to the victim's hand is not present? Do we cut off a leg in place of a hand? No, because Allah says:

And the recompense for an evil is an evil like it

وجزاء سيئةٍ سيئةٌ مثلها

Now, if a person kills another with mutilation, meaning he first cut off his hands, then his legs, then his head, do we do to him what he did? Yes, we do to him what he did: we cut off his hands, then his legs, then his head, because Allah says:

And the recompense for an evil is an evil like it

وجزاء سيئةٍ سيئةٌ مثلها

So, if this criminal mutilated the victim, we also mutilate him, because Allah says:

And the recompense for an evil is an evil like it

وجزاء سيئةٍ سيئةٌ مثلها

Now, for this reason

A Jew in Medina stood up to a slave woman of the Ansar and killed her by crushing her head between two stones. So the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) ordered that his head be crushed between two stones, just as he had crushed the head of the slave woman.

قام يهودي في المدينة إلى جارية من الأنصار فقتلها بأن رضّ رأسها بين حجرين فأمر النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم أن يرض رأسه بين حجرين كما رضّ رأس الجارية

Based on what? Based on this principle

And the recompense for an evil is an evil like it

وجزاء سيئةٍ سيئةٌ مثلها

Now

Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

Similar fatwas