Does the reasoning in the hadith of Abu Hurayrah regarding the prohibition of dipping one's hand in the vessel after waking up, stating that one does not know where one's hand spent the night, indicate that it is impure?

The questioner : ...indicate that it is impure?

The Shaykh : Indicate what?

The questioner : That it is impure...

The Shaykh : That it is impure...

The questioner : ...

The Shaykh : He says that the hadith of Abu Hurayrah , that the reasoning indicates that it becomes impure, is that correct?

The questioner : Yes.

The Shaykh : We say this is incorrect; it does not indicate this in any way. First: because his statement that "one does not know where one's hand spent the night"—everyone knows that their hand is with them in their bed and under their blanket, is that not so? Good. Also, if we suppose that a man placed his hand in a bag and was sleeping with complete cleanliness and there was no impurity on his body, is his hand pure or not? His hand is pure. Would he dip it?
The student: No.

The Shaykh : He would not dip it, and he knows that his hand is in the bag and that it did not rub any part of his body that was impure; he knows this for certain. So the best thing to say is what the Shaykh al-Islam (may Allah have mercy on him) explained as the reasoning. He said that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said: He said: And this hand may have been messed with by Satan, yes, or he may have transferred to it harm or dirt or something similar. This is the aspect of the hadith.