Text copied Link copied

Al-Fatawa – home

﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

Scholar
Search mode

Explanation of the author's statement: "And His saying: 'Who is it that would intercede with Him except by His permission?'"

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh :"And He, the Exalted and Glorious, said:
Who is it that can intercede with Him except by His permission? من ذا الذي يشفع عنده إلا بإذنه
[Al-Baqarah 2:255]
"
"Man" is an interrogative particle that carries the meaning of negation, meaning that no one intercedes with Allah except by Allah's permission. As for "dha" and "alladhi," should we treat "dha" here as a relative pronoun, as Ibn Malik said in *al-Afiliyyah*? Yes, or is it not valid for it to be a relative pronoun here because of the presence of the relative pronoun "alladhi"? Yes, this is the most likely view, even though some grammarians said it is permissible for "alladhi" to be an emphatic particle for it. However, the correct view is that "dha" here is an extra word that is nullified, either as an extra word or as combined with "man." And whatever the grammatical analysis may be, the meaning is that no one intercedes with Allah except by Allah's permission. It has been established for us that when negation comes in the form of a question, it implies a challenge, as if he said, "If there is anyone who intercedes without Allah's permission, then bring him."
And His saying:
Who is it that can intercede with Him except by His permission? من ذا الذي يشفع عنده إلا بإذنه
[Al-Baqarah 2:255]
"with Allah, Mighty and Majestic." The preposition "ind" (with) indicates that Allah, the Exalted and Glorious, is in the height, because "ind" is a preposition of place... Allah the Exalted is in the height, so no one intercedes with Him, even if they are among those brought close to Him, such as the angels brought close. They do not intercede except by His permission, the Exalted and Glorious. Is it the cosmic permission or the legislative permission? It is the cosmic permission, but it does not occur unless He is pleased with the intercession, the Exalted and Glorious. The noble verse and the first verse have benefited us by showing that what is required for intercession is what? The permission of Allah the Exalted. Why does no one intercede except by His permission? Because of the perfection of His dominion, Exalted and Majestic is He. For whenever the dominion of a king is perfected, no one speaks in his presence, not even from among the people of good, except after he gives permission. Therefore, noise in the presence of a great person is considered an insult to him and evidence that he is not great in the hearts of those with him. The Companions were with the Messenger, (peace and blessings be upon him), as if birds were on their heads, out of solemnity and not speaking unless he opened the conversation, in which case they would speak. So the result is that Allah, the Exalted and Glorious, no one intercedes with Him except by His permission. Why? Because of the perfection of His dominion. So take this as a condition for the establishment of intercession: the permission.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

Similar fatwas