Explanation of Ibn Malik's (may Allah have mercy on him) saying: "And generally, fa'ilaan sufficed them *** in fa'ul, like their saying sirraan."
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The Shaykh :"And generally, fa'ilaan sufficed them *** in fa'ul, like their saying sirraan"?
What is the difference between fa'ul and fa'ul? Hmm?
In fa'ul, the fa' is open (fathah), whereas in this one, it is closed (dammah). In fa'ul, the 'ayn is quiescent (sakinah), whereas in this one, it is open (fathah). That is why he said: "And generally, fa'ilaan sufficed them": meaning, it sufficed the Arabs to use fa'ilaan for fa'ul, as in their saying sirraan for surud. And this is the general rule. Now, what is the standard plural for surud? Hmm? The standard plural is asrad, is it not?
Because one of the conditions was not met in it, namely the opening of the fa'. So it came with a closed fa' and an open 'ayn. Therefore, the standard plural for surud is asrad. But the Arabs did not say asrad; what did they say? They said sirraan. Yes.
What is the difference between fa'ul and fa'ul? Hmm?
In fa'ul, the fa' is open (fathah), whereas in this one, it is closed (dammah). In fa'ul, the 'ayn is quiescent (sakinah), whereas in this one, it is open (fathah). That is why he said: "And generally, fa'ilaan sufficed them": meaning, it sufficed the Arabs to use fa'ilaan for fa'ul, as in their saying sirraan for surud. And this is the general rule. Now, what is the standard plural for surud? Hmm? The standard plural is asrad, is it not?
Because one of the conditions was not met in it, namely the opening of the fa'. So it came with a closed fa' and an open 'ayn. Therefore, the standard plural for surud is asrad. But the Arabs did not say asrad; what did they say? They said sirraan. Yes.