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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If he divorces one of his wives, the others are divorced

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The second question of Fatwa No. ( 11580 )
Q2: If a man has two wives and there is conflict and discord between the husband and one of them, and he pronounces a divorce with the intention of divorcing this wife who has grown weary of her husband, while the second wife, who has been defiant toward her husband, is present or absent, does the divorce include her, or is it limited to the one intended? Many people say that it includes the second wife. As for me, praise be to Allah, I know that divorce is by intention, prayer is by intention, 'Umrah is by intention, Hajj is by intention, and everything is by intention. Many people believe that if a man has two or three wives and he pronounces a divorce, they are all divorced from him. As people say, he appoints one of the wives to divorce the defiant one on his behalf so that the second or the remaining wives are not divorced. Is this correct?
Many people have said this, and I was surprised by it.

Volume 2: Divorce takes effect on the intended wife, and it is not necessary to appoint someone to pronounce the divorce on one's behalf; rather, there is no harm in pronouncing it oneself and specifying the divorced wife by his words or his intention. And success is from Allah, and may Allah send prayers and blessings upon our Prophet Muhammad, his family, and his Companions.
Source www.alifta.gov.sa

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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